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FC Cincinnati's forward Aaron Boupendza is set to miss significant playing time due to a jaw injury incurred during a confrontation outside a local bar early Monday, informed sources report. The injury, described by the club as resulting from an "off-field injury," necessitates surgical intervention scheduled for Thursday, confirmed by Pat Brennan of the Cincinnati Enquirer.
The Athletic reached out to FC Cincinnati for comments, which they declined. Attempts to get a response from the Cincinnati Police Department remained unanswered.
This incident marks a continuation of a challenging inaugural season for Boupendza with FC Cincinnati, amid diminishing patience from the club's management. Even before the jaw injury, there were already plans to transfer the player during the upcoming summer, according to inside sources. Previously, the club had suspended Boupendza for "disciplinary reasons," and he was also dismissed from the Gabon national team due to separate issues last fall. Recently, Boupendza has been noticeably out of form, having been benched in the last two games, both victories for Cincy. This season, his performance has been underwhelming with only three goals in 13 games across all competitions.
Boupendza, 27, joined FC Cincinnati last summer in a substantial $7 million transfer deal from Saudi Arabia's Al-Shabab. His initial tenure was marked by significant achievements, including scoring a pivotal goal that secured the Supporters’ Shield for Cincinnati in 2023.
Throughout his career, Boupendza has played for multiple clubs, including eight different teams and the Bordeaux B team, with a maximum of 38 appearances at Turkish club Hatayspor. He has consistently been effective, tallying 46 goals in 79 appearances prior to this season and clinching the golden boot in the Turkish league for the 2020-21 season.
Despite Boupendza's challenges, FC Cincinnati holds a strong position in the MLS Eastern Conference, ranking second with 18 points after 10 matches at the onset of the 2024 season.
